Agreed: a winning strategy does not need to be DTM-optimal. But that does not tell us whether "perfect play" requires it.syzygy wrote:The literature asks for a winning strategy. A strategy that fails to make progress towards a win is clearly not a winning strategy. But there is no need to require the winning strategy to be DTM-optimal.Sven Schüle wrote:This is one opinion. There are several opinions about it. My point is: the literature mostly ignores that "perfect play" for a legal position that is not a game-theoretical draw should require to provide the shortest path to win resp. the longest path to lose.
The key problem of ignoring it is that this can lead to "infinite winning attempts". If you have two choices to play a winning move and you always take the one with the longer distance to win then playing the game based on that strategy will *fail* to actually deliver the win on the board - unless there are other limitations like 50-moves rule or threefold repetition.
Sounds plausible.syzygy wrote:I also doubt that endgame databases for checkers take into account such 50-move rule-like drawing rules. So strictly speaking they are endgame databases for the game of checkers without that rule. And as long as they contain sufficient information to guarantee progress (which the MTC data seems to do), they give a winning strategy for that game.Sven Schüle wrote:So for chess, for instance, I could accept a DTZ50 endgame tablebase as a valid tool for "perfect play" for the subset of endgame positions it covers. But in case of checkers I doubt that the 50-moves rule (or 40-moves rule - seems to be unclear which one is used?) is currently considered in any existing EGT. In any case, not playing the shortest win can't be called "perfect play" if it involves the risk of never winning the game at all.
Not clearly distinguishing the games "with or without 50-moves rule" as you have requested may have been a weakness of my post, right. But I disagree about the "perfectly clear and commonly accepted definition". Regardless whether a "50-moves rule" (or a similar rule in case of checkers or other games) is part of the game or not, I do not see where the literature clearly defines whether "perfect play" requires a DTM-optimal strategy or not. It is simply left undefined. You argue that "there is no need to require it", so your argument is based on something like "common sense" but only from your viewpoint, while others have a different interpretation about what "perfect play" means.syzygy wrote:You will have to agree on the game: chess with 50-move rule or chess without 50-move rule. They are two different games. Same for checkers. Change the game and you change what strategies give "perfect play".Sven Schüle wrote:For these reasons I can't accept statements that pretend that "perfect play" has a consistent definition in literature. It simply hasn't. Even "strongly solved" is defined differently, sometimes the definition involves to always provide the "best move", without mentioning the "distance to win" aspect.
The concept of a game being "strongly solved" has a perfectly clear and commonly accepted definition. You just have to be aware of what exactly is the game that is solved.
So I see two possible interpretations of the "strongly solved" definition, assuming we have agreed that "making progress" is at least a requirement for "perfect play" as well as for a "strong solution":
1) A strong solution requires "perfect play" and "Perfect play" requires to be DTM-optimal.
=> That would mean: A strong solution requires a DTM-optimal strategy.
2) A strong solution requires "perfect play" but "Perfect play" does not require to be DTM-optimal.
=> That would mean: A strong solution only requires a strategy that guarantees progress in a winning position.
